Yes. Article 815-14 of the French Civil Code establishes a right of priority for co-owners only in the event that one of them wishes to sell his or her rights to a third party. In your case, your brother is selling his share to another co-owner. Therefore, you have no…
Yes, the notary in charge of settling an estate must establish the devolution of the estate (identification of heirs and indication of their legal share). In your case, the latter must ensure that your mother had no children other except you. Its role is all the more important as it…
Everything depends on the wording of your marriage contract. If there is an "allotment to the surviving spouse" clause, the surviving spouse becomes the owner of the entire estate. Failing this, the estate is divided between the surviving spouse and the 2 children in accordance with the law.
No. It all depends on your deed of gift. If it was expressly stipulated that the gift concerned the property and the furniture, then you are the owner of the furniture. Conversely, if your uncle only gave you bare ownership of the property, he retained ownership of the furniture.
No. The purpose of the real estate certificate of ownership, published at the land registry office, is to record the transfer of ownership following a death. However, article 29, last paragraph, of decree no. 55-22 of January 4, 1955, states that it is possible not to issue such a certificate…
It depends. If your mother has not drawn up a will in which she chooses her national law, the European Inheritance Regulation (n°650/2012 of July 4, 2012) must be applied. This regulation mentions that the applicable law is the of the country in which the deceased resided. Your mother's estate…
No. The signing of a deed of sale is very often preceded by a pre-contract, either a synallagmatic promise (also known as an agreement) or a unilateral promise to sell.
Yes. This is entirely possible and is referred to as partial sharing (art. 838 C. civ). However, whether the division is partial or total, it requires the unanimous agreement of the co-sharers.
No. You're probably thinking of the tenant's right of pre-emption under a residential lease (provided for in article 15 of the law of July 6, 1989). In your case, you are not a tenant, as you occupy the property free of charge. The owner is therefore under no obligation to…
No. It is perfectly possible to break the equality between heirs. However, the notary will have to ensure that your share does not encroach on the hereditary reserve of your coheirs. If this is the case, they will be entitled to claim, "financial compensation" from you, known as a "reduction…